Internal rate of return
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Does anyone know why MATLAB's IRR function gives a different answer from Excel's IRR? This is the cash flow I am interested in computing the internal rate of return for:
-$0 initial investment -the following investments over the following 46 years: [-$1,959.68, -$2,176.69, -$2,572.15, -$3,332.49, -$4,071.79, -$4,005.07, -$4,426.26, -$4,853.17, -$5,078.16, -$5,259.00, -$5,719.65, -$5,778.16, -$5,778.78, -$6,709.74, -$6,406.67, -$6,061.45, -$6,162.63, -$7,278.67, -$8,162.80, -$8,043.16, -$7,873.71, -$8,514.61, -$8,895.17, -$8,871.94, -$10,229.43, -$9,468.29, -$10,131.22, -$9,839.06, -$9,430.92, -$10,078.02, -$10,711.78, -$10,997.18, -$11,463.98, -$11,059.54, -$10,232.35, -$11,112.26, -$11,150.95, -$10,579.02, -$10,990.76, -$11,256.92, -$11,982.57, -$10,209.69, -$10,858.31, -$11,420.19, -$11,180.92, -$9,809.15] -the following payouts after the above investments: [$20,038.39, $20,163.46, $20,289.30, $20,415.93, $20,418.00, $20,420.07, $20,422.14, $20,424.21, $20,426.28, $20,424.21, $20,422.14, $20,420.07, $20,418.00, $20,415.93, $20,357.94, $14,448.15]
so amalgamating the above vector gives us
vec=[0.00, -1959.68, -2176.69, -2572.15, -3332.49, -4071.79, -4005.07, -4426.26, -4853.17, -5078.16, -5259.00, -5719.65, -5778.16, -5778.78, -6709.74, -6406.67, -6061.45, -6162.63, -7278.67, -8162.80, -8043.16, -7873.71, -8514.61, -8895.17, -8871.94, -10229.43, -9468.29, -10131.22, -9839.06, -9430.92, -10078.02, -10711.78, -10997.18, -11463.98, -11059.54, -10232.35, -11112.26, -11150.95, -10579.02, -10990.76, -11256.92, -11982.57, -10209.69, -10858.31, -11420.19, -11180.92, -9809.15, 20038.39, 20163.46, 20289.30, 20415.93, 20418.00, 20420.07, 20422.14, 20424.21, 20426.28, 20424.21, 20422.14, 20420.07, 20418.00, 20415.93, 20357.94, 14448.15];
and then computing the irr:
>> irr(vec)
ans =
Inf
The answer is an infinte ROR! Plugging this into Excel and using their IRR function, however, gives an IRR of -0.58%.
Why is there this discrepancy? I'd imagine MATLAB is numerically solving the equating the discounted sum of initial investment plus discounted cash flows to zero, but maybe it's not properly searching for the zero of the associated function to compute the IRR.
Is this the case and if so, is there a way to rectify this?
3 个评论
jean claude
2017-10-12
yes exactly! since the definition of TRI is the rate making actual value of the CF equal zero
回答(1 个)
Kawee Numpacharoen
2017-10-17
If you remove zero at the beginning, you will get this
>> vec=[-1959.68, -2176.69, -2572.15, -3332.49, -4071.79, -4005.07, -4426.26, -4853.17, -5078.16, -5259.00, -5719.65, -5778.16, -5778.78, -6709.74, -6406.67, -6061.45, -6162.63, -7278.67, -8162.80, -8043.16, -7873.71, -8514.61, -8895.17, -8871.94, -10229.43, -9468.29, -10131.22, -9839.06, -9430.92, -10078.02, -10711.78, -10997.18, -11463.98, -11059.54, -10232.35, -11112.26, -11150.95, -10579.02, -10990.76, -11256.92, -11982.57, -10209.69, -10858.31, -11420.19, -11180.92, -9809.15, 20038.39, 20163.46, 20289.30, 20415.93, 20418.00, 20420.07, 20422.14, 20424.21, 20426.28, 20424.21, 20422.14, 20420.07, 20418.00, 20415.93, 20357.94, 14448.15];
>> irr(vec)
Warning: Multiple rates of return
> In irr (line 172)
ans =
-0.005793443616722
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